Whenever the mishnah mentions (Me’ilah 6b, 8a) zerikah taking off me'ilah, Tosefos says that the simple reading is if you hold, heiter achilah shaninu. But if you hold heiter zerikah shaninu, you have to read it like this: zerikah means, rauy l'zerikah. And if you hold heiter shechitah shaninu, you read it another way, that the kabbalah was not done right so that me’ilah lasts until the zerikah.
I'm confused. Both these mishnayos, on 6b and 8a, say that a second thing happens with zerikah: The dinim of pigul, nosar, and tamei. Are those things part of the machlokes as well? Surely everyone agrees that those only happen with the actual zerikah? If so, everyone else (at least the man d’amar heter zerikah shaninu) needs to read the mishnah in a very difficult way, l'tzedadim.
Why doesn't the gemara (or the rishonim) bring these mishnayos as evidence that heiter achilah shaninu?
I'm confused. Both these mishnayos, on 6b and 8a, say that a second thing happens with zerikah: The dinim of pigul, nosar, and tamei. Are those things part of the machlokes as well? Surely everyone agrees that those only happen with the actual zerikah? If so, everyone else (at least the man d’amar heter zerikah shaninu) needs to read the mishnah in a very difficult way, l'tzedadim.
Why doesn't the gemara (or the rishonim) bring these mishnayos as evidence that heiter achilah shaninu?